Sat, Apr 25, 2009
God's Provision
This section is fairly self-explanatory. All the world is guilty, there is no distinction. However all are saved, that is all who believe. Intriguingly God's provision for all mankind not only justifies us but also proves God just. In verse 21 Paul briefly mentions that this righteousness is attested to in the Old Testament, which he proves in the following passage (4:1ff).
"The righteousness of God" in 3:21 could probably more appropriately translated "God's way of righteousness." Paul's argument is fascinating. "Apart from the Law, the Law shows God's way of righteousness." This sets the ground for Paul's later premises, that the Law's point wasn't justification but simply a pointer to something bigger (as in 3:20).
Verse 22 is interesting. It could be translated "through faith of Jesus Christ." David Reed prefers this translation, despite scholars pointing to 3:26 as a clarifier ("the one who has faith in Jesus"). I tend to lean towards a "both-and" understanding, assuming that Paul leaves it purposely ambiguous. The faith that we have in Jesus (3:26) is also a faith that Jesus Himself gives us (Christ is "the author and perfector of our faith," Hebrews 12:2). This - if pushed to its limits - could lead to some sort of Calvinistic view of salvation, i.e. that only those Jesus gives faith to are able to have faith in Jesus. However, I see it as simply an acknowledgement that without Jesus we would be nowhere. To push the verse to a Calvinistic end wouldn't make sense in light of the next clause, "for all those who believe." We must believe that we aren't able to believe unless Jesus causes us to believe? No, that doesn't make sense. We must believe in Him who gives us reason to believe.
"For there is no distinction" in 3:22 is also an important phrase. Though for some reason we may like to point out the fact that there is no distinction in Jews and Greeks (and anybody else) in terms of their falling state, we also need to realize that there is no distinction for anybody in terms of God's mercy (so much for godhatesfags.com).
"For all have sinned" in 3:23 is repeated verbatim in 5:12. It's possibly an inclusio with law and faith it's main subject in between.
However, falling short of the glory of God is probably the more important phrase in this verse. This verse obviously denotes that we aren't like God; but the connotation is that we are supposed to be! This of course whispers of imago dei spoken of in Genesis and reiterated throughout Scripture (Isaiah 43:7; 1 Corinthians 11:7; Romans 5:2). This verse quite possibly has more hope in it than judgment!
Verse 24 is one of the most exciting verses of Scripture. Justification as a gift (as opposed to a work, an act, a payment due, etc.) is simply mind-boggling. It's unfortunate that we grow up hearing about it. I don't know if we'll ever fully understand the impact of the gift of justification until we can look back with 20-20 hindsight.
Intriguingly we have three different terms being used in two that we generally take to be synonymous but maybe aren't. Our justification is by God's grace through redemption. Redemption (apolytrosis), by the way, is the buying of a slave out of bondage in order to set him free. Here we are brought to the images of the Exodus (Exodus 15:13; Psalm 77:15; 78:35) or the deliverance from Babylon (Isaiah 41:14; 43:1). Here we see a New Exodus, meant for all.
Justification is a legal term. It is a pardoning of fault. It is, simply, to be declared just.
But wait, we find yet another term in verse 25: "whom God displayed publically as a propitiation in His blood through faith." The word in question is "propitiation" or hilasterion. Hilasterion is a fantastically rich word with lots of history (and thus debate) surrounding it. In the Septuagint it and its cognates are used to refer to the mercy seat on the ark of the Holy of Holies. It is used to replace to Hebrew kipper which may remind you of "Yom Kippor" or the Day of Atonement. Therefore "propitiation" could also be translated "atonement."
There are two points to be made. First we have three terms used in an attempt to explain what Christ has done: legal (justification), social (redemption), and religious (atonement). Secondly, if "propitiation" really is pointing back to the altar and the Day of Atonement then we have a huge contrast between the priest going in alone to atone for the nation and God publically demonstrating this atonement through Jesus. All of a sudden, the veil is torn and atonement (and justification and redemption) is for all!
The end of 3:25 merely points out that this redemption/atonement/justification is for "all the world" (1 John 2:2) and therefore God passing over sins of old does not make Him unjust.
It is important to realize that 3:28 does not mean that the works of the law no longer belong in a person's life. All Paul is saying is that justification does not come through works. Where these works belong will show up much later in the book.
"The righteousness of God" in 3:21 could probably more appropriately translated "God's way of righteousness." Paul's argument is fascinating. "Apart from the Law, the Law shows God's way of righteousness." This sets the ground for Paul's later premises, that the Law's point wasn't justification but simply a pointer to something bigger (as in 3:20).
Verse 22 is interesting. It could be translated "through faith of Jesus Christ." David Reed prefers this translation, despite scholars pointing to 3:26 as a clarifier ("the one who has faith in Jesus"). I tend to lean towards a "both-and" understanding, assuming that Paul leaves it purposely ambiguous. The faith that we have in Jesus (3:26) is also a faith that Jesus Himself gives us (Christ is "the author and perfector of our faith," Hebrews 12:2). This - if pushed to its limits - could lead to some sort of Calvinistic view of salvation, i.e. that only those Jesus gives faith to are able to have faith in Jesus. However, I see it as simply an acknowledgement that without Jesus we would be nowhere. To push the verse to a Calvinistic end wouldn't make sense in light of the next clause, "for all those who believe." We must believe that we aren't able to believe unless Jesus causes us to believe? No, that doesn't make sense. We must believe in Him who gives us reason to believe.
"For there is no distinction" in 3:22 is also an important phrase. Though for some reason we may like to point out the fact that there is no distinction in Jews and Greeks (and anybody else) in terms of their falling state, we also need to realize that there is no distinction for anybody in terms of God's mercy (so much for godhatesfags.com).
"For all have sinned" in 3:23 is repeated verbatim in 5:12. It's possibly an inclusio with law and faith it's main subject in between.
However, falling short of the glory of God is probably the more important phrase in this verse. This verse obviously denotes that we aren't like God; but the connotation is that we are supposed to be! This of course whispers of imago dei spoken of in Genesis and reiterated throughout Scripture (Isaiah 43:7; 1 Corinthians 11:7; Romans 5:2). This verse quite possibly has more hope in it than judgment!
Verse 24 is one of the most exciting verses of Scripture. Justification as a gift (as opposed to a work, an act, a payment due, etc.) is simply mind-boggling. It's unfortunate that we grow up hearing about it. I don't know if we'll ever fully understand the impact of the gift of justification until we can look back with 20-20 hindsight.
Intriguingly we have three different terms being used in two that we generally take to be synonymous but maybe aren't. Our justification is by God's grace through redemption. Redemption (apolytrosis), by the way, is the buying of a slave out of bondage in order to set him free. Here we are brought to the images of the Exodus (Exodus 15:13; Psalm 77:15; 78:35) or the deliverance from Babylon (Isaiah 41:14; 43:1). Here we see a New Exodus, meant for all.
Justification is a legal term. It is a pardoning of fault. It is, simply, to be declared just.
But wait, we find yet another term in verse 25: "whom God displayed publically as a propitiation in His blood through faith." The word in question is "propitiation" or hilasterion. Hilasterion is a fantastically rich word with lots of history (and thus debate) surrounding it. In the Septuagint it and its cognates are used to refer to the mercy seat on the ark of the Holy of Holies. It is used to replace to Hebrew kipper which may remind you of "Yom Kippor" or the Day of Atonement. Therefore "propitiation" could also be translated "atonement."
There are two points to be made. First we have three terms used in an attempt to explain what Christ has done: legal (justification), social (redemption), and religious (atonement). Secondly, if "propitiation" really is pointing back to the altar and the Day of Atonement then we have a huge contrast between the priest going in alone to atone for the nation and God publically demonstrating this atonement through Jesus. All of a sudden, the veil is torn and atonement (and justification and redemption) is for all!
The end of 3:25 merely points out that this redemption/atonement/justification is for "all the world" (1 John 2:2) and therefore God passing over sins of old does not make Him unjust.
It is important to realize that 3:28 does not mean that the works of the law no longer belong in a person's life. All Paul is saying is that justification does not come through works. Where these works belong will show up much later in the book.
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