Reading this verse hits a nerve in a number of different ways. Of course I can make a point against pre-marital sex here, but I'd like to start a conversation about how this verse applies to divorce.

I will admit that I have personal bias going into this. My parents recently got divorced a few years ago after almost 25 years of marriage. They professed to be believers, but when they met they were not. The truth is that I am secretly wanting a reason to tell my parents that they shouldn't have gotten divorced, and this could be a biblical case for me to reason. They weren't believers when they met, and they made life choices that reflected their paradigms which they saw the world. Yes...this means that they were having sex before they were married.

So is there a biblical case that if you have sex before marriage, you must not only marry them, but you can never divorce them?

OR

Is this command more of a reflection that God is saying that a union that is made between a man and a woman through sexual immorality cannot be broken by it - which seems to be the only reason Jesus "allowed" divorced?

Deuteronomy 22:28-29