The Lord is at Hand
What did Paul mean? Was he warning the believers that God was present and eminent? Much of the 19th and 20th century prophetic literature seems to think so.
Was it simply a turn of phrase? Something idiomatic? It would appear that this was indeed a Greek idiom that Paul turned in its head. Certainly the phrase appears in the Hebrew Scriptures as well.
However, we need to be cautious when saying that because a phrase appears one place, it must always be utilized the same way. Just because "at hand" is used by the prophets, do not assume Paul meant it the same way. Context always clarifies meaning.
In context, Paul is clearly speaking about relationships. He is asking the church to mend the relationship between Euodia and Syntyche. He is speaking of our relationships as testaments.
I think Paul says "The Lord is at hand" to indicate that our relationships with each other are what people see as "the Lord". They equate Jesus with his followers, and if they see quarreling, dissension and bitterness, then they will assume that Jesus wants us to be quarrelous, dissenting and bitter.
John makes it clear: a man cannot hate his brother and love God. End of discussion.
Created 11 months ago
