John 4:54
http://booksteps.com/2008/03/08/john4-54/
At the end of his Gospel, John mentions that Jesus did so many miracles that no one could count them (21:25). Why then is he counting them here I wonder? Healing the official’s son was not the second miracle that Jesus had done. He had performed miraculous signs while He was in Jerusalem (2:23), though John doesn’t name them specifically. Perhaps they are numbered and specific to Galilee because the people there had so little faith that Jesus could not perform many miracles (Matthew 13:57b-58). If this verse were in Luke’s Gospel, I could understand the historical value of Number and Place. But coming from John, I just don’t get it. Any insights?
Created about 4 years ago
